[jdev] s2s doubts

[Darryl Rhodes]

Why am I getting this email?

-----Original Message-----
From: jdev-bounces at jabber.org [mailto:jdev-bounces at jabber.org] On Behalf
Of Gaston Dombiak
Sent: Tuesday, May 17, 2005 5:38 PM
To: jdev at jabber.org
Subject: [jdev] s2s doubts

Hey all,

I'm in the processing of adding s2s support to Jive Messenger starting
with 
server dialback. After reading the specs I have some questions.

Lets suppose that server1 has successfully accepted a connection with 
server2 using server dialback. If a client sends a message to server1
with 
TO=conference.server2, does server1 have to send the packet to server2 
assuming that conference.server2 is handled by server2? Or does server2
need 
to inform server1 that that subdomain is valid?

The RFC3920 says that  "in the context of server-to-server
communications, a 
server MUST use one TCP connection for XML stanzas sent from the server
to 
the peer and another TCP connection (initiated by the peer) for stanzas
from 
the peer to the server". Is it correct to create the second connection
after 
the first connection was established? I guess this is an implementation 
decision but I would like to know if that is the standard way of doing
it. 
What happens to the first connection if the second connection fails to
be 
established? What happens to the other connection if one connection goes

down? I assume that the remaining connection will be used and that the 
server will try to regenerate the other connection. Is it necessary to
have 
2 connections when using TLS/SASL?

After successful dialback negotiation, the Receiving Server SHOULD
accept 
subsequent <db:result/> packets (e.g., validation requests sent to a 
subdomain or other hostname serviced by the Receiving Server) from the 
Originating Server over the existing validated connection; this enables 
"piggybacking" of the original validated connection in one direction. Is

this being used for "registering" subdomains/services or virtual hosts
with 
the Receiving Server? If the answer is yes then how do you implement the

same thing using TLS/SASL? If the Originating Server never registered
other 
subdomains is it valid to assume that "conference.server2 is handled by 
server2" (see first question)?

Thanks for your help,

  -- Gato 



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